EGPH — EDINBURGH
| 1 |
ARP coordinates and site at AD |
Lat: 555700N
Long: 0032221W
Centre of Runway 06/24. |
| 2 |
Direction and distance from city |
5 NM W of Edinburgh. |
| 3 |
Elevation / Reference temperature / Mean Low Temperature |
112 FT / 16 °C / - |
| 4 |
Geoid undulation at AD ELEV PSN |
174 FT |
| 5 |
Magnetic Variation / Annual Change |
1.21°W (2022) / 0.22°E |
| 6 |
AD Administration |
EDINBURGH AIRPORT LTD (EAL). |
|
Address |
Edinburgh Airport, Edinburgh, Lothian EH12 9DN. | |
|
Telephone |
0870-040 0007 (EAL) 0131-344 3139 (Airfield Operations) 0131-348 4823 (ATIS) 0131-348 4828 (ATC) 0131-348 4815 (ATC Administration) | |
| 7 |
Type of Traffic permitted (IFR/VFR) |
IFR/VFR |
| 8 |
Remarks |
All telephone calls to ATC will be recorded. |
| 1 |
AD Administration |
H24 |
| 2 |
Customs and immigration |
H24 |
| 3 |
Health and sanitation | |
| 4 |
AIS Briefing Office |
H24 Terminal Building H24. Business Aviation Centre H24. |
| 5 |
ATS Reporting Office (ARO) |
As AIS Briefing Office. |
| 6 |
MET Briefing Office |
As AIS Briefing Office. |
| 7 |
ATS |
H24 See also AD 2.18. |
| 8 |
Fuelling |
0530-2300 (0430-2200). Outside these hours by prior arrangement with handling agent. |
| 9 |
Handling |
H24 |
| 10 |
Security |
H24 |
| 11 |
De-icing |
H24 |
| 12 |
Remarks |
AD use subject to limitation refer to AD 2.20 item 1 and to AD 2.21. |
| 1 |
Cargo handling facilities |
Full - at cargo centre situated behind the north and east aprons. |
| 2 |
Fuel and oil types |
AVTUR JET A-1 (anti-icing additive not included) Aeroshell W80, W100 , Mobile Jet 2 (from Signature Flight on request). |
| 3 |
Fuelling facilities/capacity |
Pentland Aviation, Signature Flight Support by fuel bowser. De-fuelling facilities subject to arrangement with fuel company. |
| 4 |
De-icing facilities |
By arrangement with handling agent. |
| 5 |
Hangar space for visiting aircraft | |
| 6 |
Repair facilities for visiting aircraft |
Limited. |
| 7 |
Remarks |
Oxygen and related servicing limited, by arrangement with local companies. |
| 1 |
Hotels |
4 Hotels on the airport. Others in the vicinity. |
| 2 |
Restaurants |
Multiple eating facilities and bars. |
| 3 |
Transportation |
Buses, trams, taxis and car hire. Nearest railway station: Edinburgh Gateway, 1.5 miles. |
| 4 |
Medical facilities |
Limited first aid treatment available. Tel: 0131-344 3254. |
| 5 |
Bank and Post Office |
Cash dispensers in terminal building. Nearest Post Office 2 miles. |
| 6 |
Tourist Office | |
| 7 |
Remarks |
| 1 |
AD category for fire fighting services |
RFF Category A9 |
| 2 |
Rescue equipment | |
| 3 |
Capability for removal of disabled aircraft |
Contact 0131-344 3139/3239 (H24). Light aircraft only. |
| 4 |
Remarks |
Aircraft operators are required to have prior arrangements in place for any required removal of disabled aircraft. |
| 1 |
Type of clearing equipment |
Mechanical, Chemical de-icing. |
| 2 |
Clearance priorities |
Standard. See AD 1.2.2. |
| 3 |
Remarks |
Latest information from Aerodrome operator Tel: 0131-344 3139/3239. |
| 1 |
Apron surface and strength |
EAST APRON Surface: Concrete PCR 776/R/D/W/U GA APRON Surface: Concrete PCR 741/R/D/W/U MAIN APRON Surface: Concrete PCR 700/R/C/W/U NORTH APRON Surface: Block paving PCR 448/F/C/X/U SOUTHEAST APRON Surface: Concrete PCR 1178/R/C/W/U TURNHOUSE APRON Surface: Concrete PCR 741/R/D/W/U |
| 2 |
Taxiway width, surface and strength |
Taxiway A1-A8 AND A16-D1: 23 M Surface: Concrete PCR 1178/R/C/W/U |
|
Taxiway ALPHA A8-A16: 23 M Surface: Asphalt PCR 577/F/A/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway ALPHA V+W LOOPS: 21 M Surface: Concrete PCR 1178/R/C/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway ECHO: 36 M Surface: Concrete PCR 1178/R/C/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway FOXTROT: 36 M Surface: Concrete PCR 1178/R/C/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway GOLF: 36 M Surface: Concrete PCR 1360/R/D/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway HOTEL: 36 M Surface: Concrete PCR 741/R/D/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway LIMA: 23 M Surface: Concrete PCR 1360/R/D/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway MIKE M3-E APRON: 46 M Surface: Asphalt PCR 448/F/C/X/U | ||
|
Taxiway MIKE TWY M1-M2: 23 M Surface: Asphalt PCR 629/F/B/X/U | ||
|
Taxiway MIKE TWY M2-M3: 46 M Surface: Asphalt PCR 629/F/B/X/U | ||
|
Taxiway PAPA: 21 M Surface: Asphalt PCR 337/F/A/W/U | ||
|
Taxiway QUEBEC: 18 M Surface: Asphalt PCR 448/F/C/X/U | ||
|
Taxiway SIERRA: 36 M Surface: Concrete PCR 776/R/D/W/U | ||
| 3 |
Altimeter checkpoint location and elevation |
Passenger Terminal Stands 97 FT North Apron 103 FT |
| 4 |
VOR checkpoints | |
| 5 |
INS checkpoints |
Aircraft Ground Movement/Parking/Docking Chart. |
| 6 |
Remarks |
| 1 |
Use of aircraft stand ID signs, TWY guide lines and visual docking/parking guidance system of aircraft stands |
Arriving and departing crew whom are unfamiliar with EGPH should notify ATC prior to taxiing. Apart from the GA Apron, nose-in parking in operation on all aprons. All nose-in stands have stand number, yellow centre-line and Stand Entry Guidance System. |
| 2 |
Runway and taxiway markings and lighting |
Runway marking aid(s): 06/24 : Runway designation, runway centre-line and threshold markings. Touchdown zone and fixed distance markings. Runway edge markings and displaced threshold arrows. |
|
Taxiway light(s): Green centre-line lighting with blue edge lights on sharp curves, red stop bars at holding points. Runway exits have alternate green/yellow centre-line lights to the CAT ll/lll stop bars. Runway guard lights on accesses to runway. | ||
| 3 |
Stop bars and runway guard lights (if any) |
Stopbars at runway entrance points are in operation H24. Illuminated red stop bars are provided where appropriate. |
| 4 |
Other runway protection measures |
Aircraft parked on the GA Apron may start engines and taxi from a nose out position. Flight and ground crew must ensure that roadways etc are protected against any jet blast/prop wash. |
| 5 |
Remarks |
Aircrew are to note that the Stand Entry Guidance (SEG) on all SEG equipped stands is activated by an apron level timer device, operated by airline/handling agent staff. Pilots should not turn off the taxilane centre-line unless the Stand Entry Guidance is illuminated with aircraft type, or a marshaller has signalled clearance to proceed. Pilots should note that failure to adhere to this instruction may lead to a negative "On Time Performance" figure. On stand taxi speed should not exceed 5 KT. |
| In Approach/Take-off areas | ||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Obstacle ID/ Designation | Obstacle Type | Obstacle Position | Elevation/Height | Obstruction Lighting Type/Colour | Remarks | |
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | |
|
(EGPH18669) 24/APPROACH 06/TAKE-OFF |
TREE |
555748.96N 0032009.82W |
186 FT |
78 FT |
No | |
|
(EGPH21240) 24/APPROACH 06/TAKE-OFF |
TREE |
555738.99N 0032035.40W |
154 FT |
54 FT |
No | |
|
(EGPH21240) 24/APPROACH 06/TAKE-OFF |
TREE |
555738.99N 0032035.40W |
154 FT |
54 FT |
No | |
|
(EGPH19777) 24/APPROACH 06/TAKE-OFF |
POLE |
555729.45N 0032105.46W |
128 FT |
17 FT |
No | |
|
(EGPH21003) 06/APPROACH 24/TAKE-OFF |
TREE |
555622.53N 0032358.53W |
172 FT |
48 FT |
No | |
|
(EGPH19098) 06/APPROACH 24/TAKE-OFF |
TREE |
555511.10N 0032704.10W |
349 FT |
61 FT |
No | |
| In circling area and at aerodrome | ||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Obstacle ID/ Designation | Obstacle Type | Obstacle Position | Elevation/Height | Obstruction Lighting Type/Colour | Remarks | |
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | |
|
(EGPH17386) |
BRIDGE TOWER |
560037.22N 0032432.49W |
663 FT |
670 FT |
Yes Red Red | |
|
(EGPH17387) |
BRIDGE TOWER |
560017.39N 0032444.99W |
690 FT |
697 FT |
Yes Red Red | |
|
(EGPH17388) |
BRIDGE TOWER |
555957.56N 0032457.50W |
663 FT |
670 FT |
Yes Red Red | |
|
(EGPH18543) |
BRIDGE TOWER |
555949.07N 0032414.85W |
522 FT |
529 FT |
Yes Red Red | |
|
TAYLOR WIMPEY CRANE |
CRANE |
555851N 0032257W |
265 FT |
99 FT |
Yes Steady Red |
North of Airfield at Queensferry. |
|
DALMENY TANK FARM |
CRANE |
555836N 0032218W |
326 FT |
164 FT |
Yes Red |
End estimated June 2026. |
|
MAYBURY ROAD CRANE |
CRANE |
555728N 0031828W |
306 FT |
164 FT |
Yes Red |
Maybury Road, Edinburgh. |
|
MILLER HOMES TURNHOUSE ROAD |
CRANE |
555701N 0032021W |
282 FT |
157 FT |
Yes Red |
Expected duration June 2029. |
|
BARRATT WEST CRAIGS |
CRANE |
555651N 0031915W |
362 FT |
164 FT |
Yes Red |
Craigs Road Edinburgh. End estimated July 2026. |
|
WEST CRAIGS |
CRANE |
555650.7N 0031906.7W |
332 FT |
126 FT |
Yes Steady Red |
End estimated June 2026. |
|
CRANE |
555648N 0031911W |
309 FT |
118 FT |
Yes Red |
Craigs Road Edinburgh. End estimated November 2027. | |
|
CALA TURNHOUSE ROAD |
CRANE |
555640N 0031936W |
298 FT |
131 FT |
Yes Red |
Turnhouse Road. End estimated December 2027. |
|
EDINBURGH PARK |
CRANE |
555542N 0031842W |
272 FT |
99 FT |
Yes Red |
Edinburgh Park, Edinburgh. End estimated June 2026. |
| 1 |
Associated MET Office |
MET OFFICE ABERDEEN |
| 2 |
Hours of service MET Office outside hour |
H24 |
| 3 |
Office responsible for TAF preparation Periods of validity |
MET OFFICE ABERDEEN 24 hours. |
| 4 |
Trend forecast Interval of issuance | |
| 5 |
Briefing/consultation provided |
Self-briefing/Telephone. |
| 6 |
Flight documentation Language(s) used |
Charts abbreviated plain language text. TAFs and METARs. English. |
| 7 |
Charts and other information available for briefing or consultation | |
| 8 |
Supplementary equipment available for providing information | |
| 9 |
ATS units provided with information |
EDINBURGH |
| 10 |
Additional information (limitation of service, etc.) |
|
Designations RWY Number |
True bearing |
Dimensions of RWY | Surface of RWY/ SWY/ Strength |
THR co-ordinates/ THR Geoid undulation | THR elevation/ Highest elevation of TDZ of precision APP RWY | Slope of RWY/ SWY |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 |
|
06 |
058.85° |
2558 x 45 M |
RWY surface: Asphalt, Grooved PCN 68/R/B/W/T |
555641.99N 0032313.90W 173.5 FT |
THR 110.1 FT TDZ 110.1 FT | |
|
24 |
238.88° |
2558 x 45 M |
RWY surface: Asphalt, Grooved PCN 68/R/B/W/T |
555717.66N 0032128.66W 173.4 FT |
THR 99.8 FT TDZ 100.0 FT |
| SWY Dimensions | Clearway Dimensions | Strip Dimensions | RESA Dimensions, Overshoot / Undershoot | Location/description of arresting system | OFZ | Remarks |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 8 | 9 | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 |
|
60 x 45 M |
60 x 150 M |
2798 x 280 M |
125 x 150 M 599 x 150 M |
RWY 06 | ||
|
60 x 45 M |
448 x 150 M |
2798 x 280 M |
326 x 150 M 398 x 150 M |
RWY 24 |
| Runway designator |
TORA |
TODA |
ASDA |
LDA |
Remarks |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
|
06 |
2556 M |
2616 M |
2616 M |
2344 M | |
|
24 |
2554 M |
3002 M |
2614 M |
2347 M | |
|
06 |
1891 M |
1951 M |
1951 M |
Take-off from intersection with Hold Bravo 1. Information signage in place adjacent to Hold Bravo 1. | |
|
24 |
1891 M |
2339 M |
1951 M |
Take-off from intersection with Hold Charlie 1. Information signage in place adjacent to Hold Charlie 1. |
| RWY | Approach lighting Type/ Length/ Intensity | Threshold lighting Colour/ Wing bars | VASIS/ MEHT/ PAPI/PAPI Dist from THR | TDZ,lightingLength | Runway Centre LinelightingLength/ Spacing/Colour/ Intensity | Runway edge lighting Length/ Spacing/Colour/ Intensity | Runway end lighting Colour/ Wing bars | Stopway lightingLength/Colour | Remarks |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
|
06 |
Coded centre-line with five crossbars. 870 M Light intensity high |
Green Light intensity high With green wingbars |
PAPI Left / 3 ° 56 FT 425 M |
White Light intensity high 870 M |
Colour coded centre-line 15 M spacing |
Bi-directional edge 46 M gauge |
Red |
60 M beyond runway end lights Red | |
|
24 |
Coded centre-line with five crossbars. 914 M Light intensity high |
Green Light intensity high With green wingbars |
PAPI Left / 3 ° 59 FT 380 M |
White Light intensity high 900 M |
Colour coded centre-line 15 M spacing |
Bi-directional edge 46 M gauge |
Red |
60 M beyond runway end lights Red |
| 1 |
ABN/IBN location, characteristics and hours of operation | |
| 2 |
LDI location and lighting Anemometer location and lighting |
Anemometer: 555652.67N 0032257.32W (LGTD) - 555715.15N 0032150.51W (LGTD). |
| 3 |
TWY edge and centre line lighting |
CL : All taxiways are equipped with green centre-line lighting. All aircraft stand taxiways are equipped with green centre-line lighting. |
| 4 |
Secondary power supply/switch-over time |
Yes. |
| 5 |
Remarks |
Apron floodlighting for all apron areas. Obstacle lighting. |
| Designation and lateral limits | Vertical Limits | Airspace Class | ATS unit callsign/ language | Transition Altitude | Hours of applicability | Remarks |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 |
|
EDINBURGH CTR A circle, 10 NM radius, centred at 555700N 0032221W |
Upper limit: 6000 FT ALT Lower limit: SFC |
D |
EDINBURGH APPROACH English |
6000 FT | ||
|
EDINBURGH ATZ A circle, 2.5 NM radius, centred at 555700N 0032221W on longest notified runway (06/24) |
Upper limit: 2000 FT AGL Lower limit: SFC |
D |
EDINBURGH APPROACH English |
6000 FT |
|
Service | Callsign | Channel/Frequency(MHz) | SATVOICE number(s) | Logon Address |
Hours of Operation | Remarks |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
|
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
|
APP |
EDINBURGH APPROACH |
121.205
Also a CTR Channel. |
H24 |
ATZ hours coincident with Approach hours. | ||
|
TWR |
EDINBURGH GROUND |
121.755 |
Mon-Fri 0600-2200 (0500-2100); Sat, Sun 0600-2200 (0500-2100). |
Outside operating hours contact TOWER 118.705 MHz. | ||
|
121.980 as directed by ATC. |
Mon-Fri 0600-2200 (0500-2100); Sat, Sun 0600-2200 (0500-2100). | |||||
|
EDINBURGH TOWER |
118.705 DOC 25 NM/10,000 FT. |
H24 | ||||
|
121.500 |
O/R | |||||
|
RADAR |
EDINBURGH RADAR |
121.205 DOC 40 NM/10,000 FT. |
H24 Subject to NOTAM |
VDF | ||
|
128.980
DOC 40 NM/10,000 FT. |
H24 Subject to NOTAM | |||||
|
ATIS |
EDINBURGH INFORMATION |
131.355 DOC 60 NM/20,000 FT. |
H24 |
Also available by telephone: | ||
|
OTHER |
EDINBURGH FIRE |
121.600 Non-ATS frequency. |
Available when Fire vehicle attending aircraft on the ground in an emergency. |
| Type of Aid CAT of ILS/MLS MAG Var/VOR Declination | Ident | Frequency | Hours of Operation | Position of transmitting antenna coordinates | Elevation of DME transmitting antenna | Remarks |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 |
|
ILS/LOC III 0.24°W (2027) |
IVG |
108.900 MHz |
HO |
555725.58N 0032105.28W |
(RWY 06) | |
|
ILS/GP |
IVG |
329.300 MHz |
HO |
555652.51N 0032259.39W |
3° ILS Ref Datum Hgt 54 FT. | |
|
ILS/LOC III 0.25°W (2027) |
ITH |
108.900 MHz |
HO |
555629.22N 0032351.54W |
(RWY 24) | |
|
ILS/GP |
ITH |
329.300 MHz |
HO |
555716.69N 0032148.96W |
3° ILS Ref Datum Hgt 50 FT. | |
|
VOR/DME 0.66°W (2027) 1.0°W (2022) |
GOW |
101X 115.400 MHz |
H24 Hours of operation for aerodrome purposes: HO |
555213.81N 0042644.60W |
46 FT |
GOW VOR DOC: 25 NM/25,000 FT (45 NM/25,000 FT Sector R051-091). |
|
VOR/DME 0.71°W (2027) 0.9°W (2025) |
TRN |
122X 117.500 MHz |
H24 |
551848.28N 0044701.91W |
586 FT |
VOR DOC: 20 NM/50,000 FT, 30 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R056-106 and 45 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R356-056. |
|
DME |
IVG |
26X 108.900 MHz |
HO |
555706.24N 0032222.75W |
120 FT |
(RWY 06) |
|
DME |
ITH |
26X 108.900 MHz |
HO |
555706.24N 0032222.75W |
120 FT |
(RWY 24) |
|
NDB (L) 0.21°W (2027) |
EDN |
341.000 kHz |
H24 |
555842.55N 0031707.63W |
Range 35 NM. | |
|
NDB (L) 0.29°W (2027) |
UW |
368.000 kHz |
H24 |
555418.55N 0033009.05W |
Range 25 NM. |
Use governed by regulations applicable to Edinburgh CTR.
All flights, except General Aviation and Military flights, are subject to the prior approval of the Chief Executive Officer, Edinburgh Airport Ltd (EAL) and prior notification to Airport Coordination Ltd, who act as an agent for the airport. Requests for ad-hoc slot allocations should be made to ACL during working hours Mon-Fri 0830-1700 (0730-1600) by email: lonacxh@acl-uk.org; or Tel: +44 (0)161-493 1850, Fax: +44 (0)161-493 1853, or at all other times to EAL Airside Operations on Tel: +44 (0)131-344 3139. OCS account holders can add, change and cancel slots at any time on the online coordination portal: https://www.online-coordination.com/default.aspx?AspxAutoDetectCookieSupport=1
Fixed-wing and rotary aircraft using Edinburgh Airport do so in accordance with the Conditions of Use document available on request from Edinburgh Airport Ltd. Tel: +44 (0)844 481 8989 or www.edinburghairport.com/cou
Use by aircraft not able to communicate with ATC by radio is subject to prior permission from ATC.
A handling agent (an EAL licensed airline operator or handling agent based at Edinburgh) is a requirement for all flights including general aviation, cargo, military and helicopter movements. All operators, including executive and private general aviation, must make prior arrangements with a handling agent for the ground handling of all flights. Due to limited parking space all aircraft are PPR with their handling agent.
Pilots of international arriving or departing General Aviation aircraft are responsible for presenting their passengers to the UK Border Agency. Transport to and from the control authority facilities will be provided by the handling agent.
Airline operators are requested to note that stand availability is extremely limited, particularly at night and for large wide-bodied aircraft.
The use of the airport is also subject to the limitations imposed by the night noise limitations.
It is a requirement that every airline using Edinburgh Airport must have local orders compatible with the EAL Emergency Orders. Airlines, General Aviation operators and Flying Clubs should also note that it is their responsibility to recover disabled aircraft and aircraft wreckage and have appropriate arrangements in place before commencing flying operations into the airport. EAL will act as the co-ordinating body throughout the recovery operation and has only very limited equipment which might be used to salvage disabled aircraft.
Aircrew can request ATC departure clearance from EOBT-25. Departing aircraft on first contact with Edinburgh ATC must state aircraft type, stand number and the code letter of the latest ATIS received.
Crews should be in receipt of departure clearance prior to requesting push and start.
ATC departure clearance by Data Clearance Link (DCL) is available at Edinburgh for suitably equipped aircraft. DCL must be compliant with ARINC 623-2 and Eurocae ED 85-A. DCL is available as follows: Winter - All flights from EOBT-25 minutes. Summer - Flights with EOBT between 0500Z and 0700Z, EOBT-22 minutes otherwise from EOBT-25 minutes. DCL clearances may not be issued if requested later than EOBT+15 minutes.
Successful clearances must be accepted within 5 minutes of receipt or a 'REVERT TO VOICE' message will be received. If any data errors are detected by the system or the controller, a 'REVERT TO VOICE' message will be received.
If the attempt to obtain a clearance is unsuccessful the aircraft should revert to voice RTF.
Crews should request start up clearance only when fully ready to push. This should include doors and hatches closed, steps or air bridge removed, tug attached and communications established with ground crew with confirmation that they are ready. To prevent back of stand vehicle traffic congestion, anti-collision beacons should only be switched on once start clearance has been obtained. Where a push-back is to take place with no headset communication between ground crew and aircraft commander, ATC must be advised of this prior to push-back clearance being requested.
Aircraft commanders should not request taxi clearance until all ground crew have vacated the taxilane.
When on airside external areas, Flight crew and Cabin Crew are required to wear a fully fastened high visibility jacket or tabard.
Arriving and departing crew whom are unfamiliar with EGPH should notify ATC prior to taxiing. All stands are nose-in/push-back. Aircraft on the GA Apron may be turned to face nose out. Aircraft parked on the GA Apron may start engines and taxi from a nose out position. Flight and ground crew must ensure that roadways etc are protected against any jet blast/prop wash. Pilots requiring services on Apron areas, including Customs and Immigration, must ensure that a suitable tow-bar is available.
General Aviation (GA) aircraft requiring UK Border Agency clearance may be initially directed to the passenger apron. Passengers will be taken to the main passenger terminal for UK Border Agency clearance by their handling agent. When all necessary formalities have been completed, aircraft will be required to reposition to an alternate parking location. GA aircraft not requiring UK Border Agency inspection may taxi directly to their allocated parking area.
Aircrews are advised that there is a short section of parallel taxiway incorporating Lima 1 to Lima 2 and Mike 1 to Mike 2 to enable ATC to pass aircraft. Aircraft must remain on the yellow centre-lines to maintain the required minimum wing-tip clearances and should ensure that they understand the routeing given by ATC, particularly at night when both taxiway centre-lines and associated curves are illuminated. The taxiways are clearly delineated by internally illuminated signs and painted ground markings where it has not been possible to provide signs.
At all times, aircrew are responsible for their wingtip separation and, if in any doubt, should stop, hold position and request marshaller assistance. At either end of the Taxiway Alpha, passing places (V and W loops) have been provided to allow aircraft to hold and/or pass aircraft holding on the Taxiway Alpha. Aircraft may pass other aircraft at these locations only when both aircraft concerned have a wingspan of less than 36 M.
Airlines/Aircraft Operators should be aware that stand availability prior to operational first wave is extremely limited and aircraft arriving off schedule prior to first wave are likely to either hold or be allocated any aircraft compliant stand, including non-contact, as they become free.
Runway 06 and 24, subject to serviceability of the required facilities, are suitable for Category ll/lll operations by operators whose minima have been accepted by the Civil Aviation Authority.
During Category ll and lll operations special ATC procedures (ATC low visibility procedures) will be applied. Pilots will be informed by RTF when these procedures are in operation.
Departing Aircraft: Aircraft must not obstruct the Fire Service access road to Runway 06/24 between Holds A10 and A11.
Arriving Aircraft: Pilots should delay the call ‘Runway vacated’ until the aircraft is established on Taxiway Alpha and past the coded taxiway centre-line.
No intersection departures from Bravo and Charlie.
Pilots are warned that there is a large bird population around the aerodrome and to expect the possibility of increased bird activity in the lower airspace, together with visible evidence of deterrent activity in the form of shell crackers being fired.
Steel plate in place on Echo Taxiway, 15 metres south of E2 and 10 metres West of the Echo Taxiway centreline.
All helicopter arrivals and departures are via Runway 06/24.
Arrivals - ATC shall direct traffic to the designated parking area and thereafter will advise on hover/taxiing requirements.
Departures – As directed by ATC.
The declared distances promulgated for the Bravo and Charlie taxiway intersections are taken at the intersection of the downwind edge of the specified taxiway with the runway centre-line. An appropriate adjustment for a line up allowance must additionally be made by aircrew.
Minimum Runway Occupancy Times
Departures
On receipt of line up clearance, pilots should, commensurate with safety and standard operating procedures, line up on the runway without delay.
Whenever possible, cockpit checks should be completed prior to line up and any checks requiring completion whilst on the runway should be kept to the minimum required. Pilots should ensure that they are able to commence the take off roll as soon as clearance is issued.
Pilots not able to comply with these requirements should notify ATC as soon as possible once transferred to the Edinburgh Tower frequency.
Arrivals
Pilots are reminded that rapid exit from the runway will enable ATC to apply minimum spacing on final approach to achieve maximum runway utilisation and will minimise the risk of ‘go-arounds’.
Standard Taxi Routes - After landing pilots must follow the appropriate Standard Taxi Route to the clearance limit specified in the table below. ATC Instruction will not normally be given for aircraft vacating at A1, B1 and D1.
| Runway Exit Used | Clearance Limit | Via |
|---|---|---|
| A1 | A8 | TWY A |
| B1 | A12 | TWY B and TWY A |
| C1 | As Instructed by ATC (Normally A15 or A16) | TWY C and TWY A |
| D1 | A18 | TWY D and TWY A |
Code E/F aircraft must vacate the runway at the end (via A1 or D1) unless escorted by "follow-me" vehicle.
Flight Training and/or test flying is permitted subject to prior liaison with, and the agreement of EGPH ATC.
All aircraft inbound to or outbound from this aerodrome are required to conform to the following procedures, notwithstanding that these may at any time be departed from to the extent necessary for avoiding immediate danger.
Any aircraft using the aerodrome shall be operated in such a way that it will not cause a noise reading of more than 94 dBA Lmax by day 0600-2330 (0500-2230) or 87 dBA Lmax by night 2330-0600 (2230-0500) at the relevant noise monitoring terminal(s); the measured noise reading for the event will be taken as the highest recorded at any single noise monitoring terminal.
The sites of the aircraft noise monitoring terminals relating to Edinburgh Airport are:
EDI 01 - Houston Industrial Estate, Livingston. NT 0620 6903 - *555418N 0033006W;
EDI 02 - Scottish Power, Broxburn. NT 0924 7061 - *555508N 0033202W;
EDI 03 - Cramond Kirk Manse, Cramond. NT 1902 7650 -*555829N 0031757W.
For visual approaches to Runway 06/24 the following limitations will apply:
Propeller driven aircraft whose MTWA does not exceed 5700 KG will not join the final approach to the runway below 1000 FT AAL.
All visual approaches from the south to Runway 24 by aircraft with an MTWA in excess of 5700 KG are to be made from a position not less than 7 NM DME on the extended centreline. Aircraft are not to descend below 2000 FT QNH until after crossing the Firth of Forth coastline northbound. All visual approaches from the north to Runway 24 by aircraft with an MTWA in excess of 5700 KG are to be made from a position not less than 4 NM DME on the extended centreline. Aircraft approaching Runway 06 are to join the extended runway centreline at a height of not less than 1500 FT.
With the exception of aircraft in an emergency, between the hours of 2230-0630 (2130-0530), no visual approaches to Runway 06/24 are permitted for IFR aircraft. All IFR aircraft to carry out ILS approaches under ATC control.
Aircraft using the ILS shall not descend below 3000 FT (Edinburgh QNH), unless instructed by ATC, before intercepting the glidepath nor thereafter fly below it. Aircraft landing without assistance from ILS or radar shall follow a descent path which will not result in their being at any time lower than the nominal ILS glidepath.
The Noise Preferential Routeings specified in the following table are compatible with ATC requirements and the tracks are to be flown by all departing jet aircraft and by all other departing aircraft of more than 5700 KG MTWA unless otherwise instructed by ATC or unless deviations are required in the interests of safety.
Noise Preferential Routes must be strictly adhered to. Direct routeings etc offered by ATC should only be taken up after completion of the NPR, unless a mandatory instruction is given or an emergency situation prevails.
|
Take-off Runway |
ATC Clearance |
Procedure |
|---|---|---|
|
06 |
Via TLA VOR |
Climb straight ahead to I-VG D0.5 or 635 QNH, whichever is earlier, then turn left to track 043 then at I-VG D7 turn right onto track 143. At TLA VOR R023 (I-VG/I-TH D12) turn right to intercept TLA VOR R025 to TLA VOR.NPR terminates at TLA VOR D30. |
|
Via SAB VOR or NATEB |
Climb straight ahead to I-VG D0.5 or 635 QNH, whichever is earlier, then turn left to track 043 then at I-VG D7 turn right towards SAB or NATEB. | |
|
Via GRICE |
Climb straight ahead to I-VG D0.5 or 635 QNH, whichever is earlier, then turn left to track 043. At I-VG D3 turn left onto SAB VOR 285. Cross SAB D46 above 4500 (5.1%).NPR terminates at 3000. | |
|
Via GOSAM (P600/UL612) |
Climb straight ahead to I-VG D0.5 or 635 FT QNH, whichever is earlier, then turn left to track 043. Then At I-VG D3, turn left onto GOW VOR R076 to CUMBO. Cross GOW D35 at 5000 or above (8%). Cross GOW D30 at 6000.NPR terminates at 6000. | |
|
Other Routes |
Climb straight ahead to I-VG D0.5 or 635 QNH, whichever is earlier, then turn left to track 043, until I-VG D7 before turning on course.NPR terminates at I-VG D7. | |
|
24 |
Via TLA VOR |
Climb straight ahead to UW NDB. At I-TH D7 turn left onto TLA VOR R344 to TLA VOR. |
|
Via SAB VOR or NATEB |
Climb straight ahead to UW NDB. At UW NDB turn left towards SAB VOR or NATEB. | |
|
Via GOSAM (P600/UL612) |
Climb straight ahead to UW NDB. At UW NDB turn right onto UW NDB QDR 261 to MAVIX. Cross I-TH D9.5 at or above 4500 (7.7%). Cross I-TH D14 at 6000 (6.6%).NPR terminates at 6000. | |
|
Via GRICE |
Climb straight ahead to UW NDB. At UW NDB turn right onto TLA VOR R351. At TLA D32 turn left to intercept TLA VOR R346 to GRICE. Cross TLA D33 at or above 4000 (3.4%).NPR terminates at 3000. | |
|
Other Routes |
Climb straight ahead to UW NDB or 3000, whichever is earlier, before turning on course. |
For environmental reasons, aircraft commanders are requested to avoid the use of reverse thrust/pitch, between the hours of 2300-0600 (2200-0500).
With the exception of Military aircraft, aircraft which do not meet the standards specified in Part ll, Chapter 3 of Volume 1 ICAO Annex 16 will not be permitted to operate to/from Edinburgh Airport.
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs). The standard routes for inbound aircraft to Edinburgh are shown at AD 2.EGPH-7-1, AD 2.EGPH-7-2, AD 2.EGPH-7-3, AD 2.EGPH-7-4, AD 2.EGPH-7-5 and AD 2.EGPH-7-6.
Inbound procedure other than via the ATS route network.
Aircraft wishing to enter the CTR/CTA under IFR direct from the FIR must observe the normal procedure for joining Controlled Airspace. For aircraft joining from the North or Northeast, clearance via GRICE to L UW for Runway 06 or direct to L EDN for Runway 24 should be anticipated.
Pilots inbound to Edinburgh under VFR must contact Edinburgh Approach Control prior to entering the CTR/CTA and may be required by ATC to route via the published Visual Reference Points.
Speed
Speeds published on the STARs should be adhered to unless ATC advise otherwise. Aircraft below FL100 should adhere to the speed limit of Max 250 KT. Tactical speed control may be applied by ATC as required. Pilots unable to comply with speed control must inform ATC Immediately stating the minimum speed acceptable.When Edinburgh inbound traffic is being sequenced by Radar, the Approach Procedures will be flown under directions from the Approach Radar Controller and will consist of that part of the approach between the Terminal Holding Fix and the Final Approach Path. When Holding procedures are not in use, radar sequencing may commence before the Terminal Holding Fix.
Pilots should plan their flight profile in such a manner as to be able to achieve the Minimum Holding Level at the appropriate holding point if so required.
When an aircraft is under Approach Radar Control, changes of heading or Flight Level/Altitude will be made only on instructions from the Radar Controller except in the case of radio communication failure in the aircraft or at the Radar Unit.
Headings and Flight Levels/Altitudes at which to leave the holding areas will be passed by ATC. Radar vectors will be given and descent clearance will include an estimate of track distance to touchdown. Further distance information will be given between the initial descent clearance and intercept heading to the ILS.
Speed Control may be applied on a tactical basis to the extent determined necessary by the Radar Controller. Aircraft unable to conform to the speeds specified by the Radar Controller should inform him immediately and state what speeds will be used. In the interests of accurate spacing pilots are requested to comply with speed adjustments as promptly as is feasible within their own operational constraints, and should advise ATC if circumstances necessitate a change of speed for aircraft performance reasons.
GPWS – Owing to the terrain profile to the south of Edinburgh, GPWS warnings are possible on intermediate approach to Runways 06 and 24.
When inbound traffic is not being sequenced by Radar, aircraft will be cleared from the Terminal Holding Facility via EDN or UW NDB to carry out an Instrument Approach Procedure appropriate to the landing direction.
When Runway 06 is in use, in order to expedite traffic, aircraft may be transferred from TARTN or STIRA holding pattern to UW NDB holding pattern prior to carrying out the Instrument Approach Procedure.
When Runway 24 is in use, in order to expedite traffic, aircraft may be transferred from TARTN or STIRA holding pattern to EDN NDB holding pattern prior to carrying out the Instrument Approach Procedure.
No visual approaches to Runway 06/24 are permitted for IFR aircraft between 2230-0630 (2130-0530). All IFR aircraft are to carry out a published Instrument Approach Procedure under ATC control with the exception of aircraft in emergency. This allows the continued operation when the CVCR is in use and ILS approaches are not available.
Turbo-jet and turbo-prop aircraft approaching Edinburgh Aerodrome will be expected to conform to the continuous descent and low-power, low-drag approach procedures. To facilitate this technique, aircraft should fly within the speed bands detailed at Paragraph 1, item d. In the interest of accurate spacing, ATC may request specific speeds and pilots are requested to comply with any speed adjustments as promptly as is feasible within their own operational constraints. If circumstances necessitate, a speed change for aircraft performance reasons, ATC should be advised accordingly.
Headings and Flight Levels/Altitudes will be passed by the Radar Controller. Aircraft will be radar vectored either from the holding facility or following transfer of control from the Area Control Unit to Edinburgh Approach. ATC will advise pilots of an estimate of the track distance to run to touchdown when clearance to descend below the Transition Altitude is given. Further information on the distance from touchdown will be given between this descent clearance and the instruction to turn onto the intercept heading to the ILS localizer.
On receipt of descent clearance the pilot will descend at the rate he judges will be best suited to a continuous descent, the object being to join the glidepath at the appropriate height for the distance, without recourse to level flight. Pilots are reminded that due to high ground southeast of the airport, descent below 3000 FT QNH will be in accordance with AD 2-EGPH-5-1
In the event of radar failure, new instructions will be issued to each aircraft under radar control and the procedures as defined for approach without radar control will be put into effect.
Military Jet aircraft – Radar vectoring for ILS approach is mandatory for military fast jet aircraft.
In the event of complete radio communication failure in an aircraft, the pilot will adopt the appropriate procedures notified at ENR 1.1, subsection 3 with the exceptions detailed below.
When complete communication failure occurs in the aircraft before ETA or before EAT when this has been received and acknowledged, the aircraft will:
Fly to the appropriate holding point;
hold at the last assigned level until the last acknowledged ETA plus 10 minutes or EAT when this has been given;
then commence descent for landing in accordance with the procedure detailed on the Instrument Approach charts and effect a landing within 30 minutes (or later if able to land visually).
If complete radio communication failure occurs after an aircraft has reported to ATC on reaching the holding point, the aircraft will:
Maintain the last assigned holding level at the appropriate holding point until:
ATA over holding point plus 10 minutes or 10 minutes after the last acknowledged communication with ATC, whichever is the later; or
EAT when this has been received and acknowledged;
then commence descent for landing in accordance with the procedure detailed on the Instrument Approach charts and effect a landing within 30 minutes (or later if able to land visually).
In the event of complete radio failure in an aircraft which has been cleared for an IFR inter-aerodrome flight within the Scottish TMA the pilot will adopt the appropriate procedure as follows, depending upon the phase of flight:
If the aircraft is receiving a radar service and is within the ATCSMAC of the destination aerodrome, the pilot will adopt the appropriate loss of communication procedure for the runway-in-use as detailed in the ATCSMAC information at AD 2-EGPH-5-1. Landing must be effected within 30 minutes (or later if able to land visually);
If the aircraft is either not receiving a radar service or is receiving a radar service but has not yet arrived within the ATCSMAC of the destination aerodrome, the pilot will proceed to the appropriate holding point at the destination aerodrome at the last assigned level or 4000 FT whichever is higher. He will then adopt the procedures in paragraph's 5a or 5b.
The route and altitude to be used when leaving the CTR/CTA in accordance with the procedures at ENR 1.1, subsection 3 are shown in the table; the route to be followed is dependent on the position of the aircraft at the time the decision to leave the CTR is made.
|
Position at time of decision |
Route |
|---|---|
|
Edinburgh Airport EDN or UW NDB |
Track 025°T from facility at 4000 FT ALT until crossing the Edinburgh CTR Boundary. |
Non-Airways IFR departing flights from Edinburgh routeing in the open FIR to the north or northeast should anticipate ATC clearance normally at an altitude below 6000 FT.
A speed limitation of 250 KT applies to all departures following SIDs whilst flying below FL 100 unless previously removed by ATC. ATC will endeavour to remove the speed limitation as soon as possible and will use the phrase 'No speed restriction'. The phrase must not be interpreted as relieving the pilot of his responsibility for the observance of any noise abatement procedures which may include a speed/power limitation.
VFR flights in the Control Zone will be given routeing instructions and/or altitude restrictions in order to integrate VFR flights with other traffic.
Pilots should anticipate routeing instructions via the Visual Reference Points detailed in paragraph 10 or the routes detailed in paragraph 11.
Pilots of VFR flights are reminded of the requirement to remain in VMC at all times and to comply with the relevant parts of SERA and the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015, and must advise ATC if at any time they are unable to comply with the instructions issued.
Helicopters: Whenever possible helicopter flights in the Edinburgh Control Zone will be cleared on direct routeings under VFR (or, when requested at night, on Special VFR clearance in accordance with the procedures for Special VFR flights)
Clearance may be requested for Special VFR flight within the Edinburgh Control Zone and will be given whenever the traffic situation permits. These flights are subject to the general conditions laid down for Special VFR flights (ENR 1.2 refers).
Special VFR clearance will include routeing and maximum altitude instructions and may not necessarily be confined to the Entry/Exit Lanes detailed at paragraph 11.
Pilots are reminded that they must at all times when operating on Special VFR clearance, remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface and in flight conditions which will enable them to determine their flight path and keep clear of obstacles. Due to the nature of the terrain in the vicinity of Edinburgh Airport radar vectoring will not normally be applied to aircraft operating on Special VFR clearance.
Pilots are reminded that a Special VFR clearance applies only to flight within the CTR and does not extend to flight within the surrounding Airspace of the Scottish Terminal Control Area.
Special VFR clearance will not normally be granted for flights operating in VMC or for flights by aircraft exceeding 5700 KG MTWA.
Details of VRPs are available in the consolidated 'Visual Reference Points List' published on the 'Digital Dataset' page of the NATS AIS website, www.nats.aero/ais.
Gliding operations - Edinburgh CTR
Gliding operations are carried out at RAF Kirknewton by 661 Volunteer Gliding Squadron (VGS). Activity is co-ordinated with ATC and gliders can be expected in the agreed Delegated Gliding Area.
The RAF Kirknewton Delegated Gliding Area (DGA) is defined by the lateral limits:
555320N 0032415W – 555338N 0032053W (Ravelrig Road rail bridge between Balerno & Dalmahoy) – 555121N 0032048W (Western corner of Threipmuir Reservoir) – 554959N 0032545W (Eastern corner of Harperigg Reservoir) – 555211N 0032601W thence clockwise by an arc of a circle radius 1.3 NM centred on 555213N 0032401W to 555320N 0032415W.
Up to 2500 FT AMSL, this is known as DGA-circuit.
Up to 3700 FT AMSL, this is known as DGA-soaring.
ATC may tactically manage traffic to avoid the area if appropriate.
ATC will advise other aircraft of gliding activity as appropriate.
To permit aircraft to operate to and from Edinburgh Airport in IMC but not under IFR the following entry/exit lanes have been established for use, under the conditions stated, as follows:
a lane 3 NM wide, known as the Polmont Lane, with centre-line the M9 Motorway extending from Grangemouth (near the western boundary of the Edinburgh Control Zone) eastwards, via the Polmont Roundabout, Linlithgow Loch and Philpstoun to a point at which it joins the Edinburgh Aerodrome Traffic Zone;
a lane 3 NM wide, known as the Kelty Lane, with centre-line the M90 Motorway extending from Kelty (near the northern boundary of the Edinburgh Control Zone) southwards to M90 Junc 1B, then with the centre-line the A9000 across the Forth Road Bridge to M90 Junc 1, then with the centre-line the M90 Motorway to a point at which it joins the Edinburgh Aerodrome Traffic Zone;
use of the lanes is subject to clearance being obtained from ATC Edinburgh, irrespective of prevailing weather conditions. This clearance is to be obtained by non-radio equipped aircraft before take-off and by radio equipped aircraft before entering the lane;
aircraft using the lanes must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the ground or water, not above 2000 FT (Edinburgh QNH), and in flight visibility of not less than 3 KM;
an aircraft using a lane shall keep the centre-line on its left, unless otherwise instructed by ATC for separation purposes. In these circumstances ATC will pass traffic information to the aircraft concerned;
pilots of aircraft are responsible for maintaining adequate clearance from the ground or other obstacles.
Additionally, to permit the effective integration of traffic, flights operating in VMC and under VFR may be required by ATC to follow these routes as detailed in paragraph 8.
|
Approach Lighting Category |
Runway |
Approach Aid |
OCH (FT) Acft CAT A See IAC for other CATs |
Minima | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
|
DH/MDH (FT) Caution See AD 1.1 subsection 4 |
RVR (M) | ||||
|
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
|
Runway 06 Full |
06 |
ILS/DME |
135 |
250 |
600 |
|
06 |
LOC/DME (also without DME) |
480 |
480 |
1000 | |
|
06 |
NDB(L)/DME (also without DME) |
580 |
580 |
1000 | |
|
Runway 24 Full |
24 |
ILS/DME |
145 |
250 |
600 |
|
24 |
LOC/DME (also without DME) |
440 |
440 |
900 | |
|
24 |
NDB(L)/DME (also without DME) |
500 |
500 |
1000 | |
Pilots operating in the vicinity of, but intending to remain outside Edinburgh controlled airspace within the area defined by straight lines joining successively the following points and maintaining a listening watch only on Edinburgh Radar frequency, 121.205 MHz, are encouraged to select SSR code 0440.
553627N 0035327W - 553648N 0024753W - 560117N 0023955W - 561156N 0025112W - 561150N 0034633W - 555724N 0035417W - 554806N 0035411W - 553627N 0035327W.
Selection of code 0440 does not imply receipt of an ATC service. Pilots of aircraft displaying the code are not expected to contact ATC under normal circumstances, remain responsible for their own navigation, separation, terrain clearance and are expected to remain clear of controlled airspace.
Whilst squawking 0440, pilots should be aware that Edinburgh Radar may make blind transmissions in order to ascertain a particular aircraft’s intentions/route.
When a pilot ceases to maintain a listening watch, code 0440 shall be deselected.
For wildlife hazard management purposes, a bird scaring laser is deployed and utilised by the Airside Operations team.
|
AERODROME CHART - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-2-1 |
|
AIRCRAFT GROUND MOVEMENT/PARKING/DOCKING CHART - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-2-2 |
|
AERODROME CHART CODE E AIRCRAFT GROUND MOVEMENT - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-2-3 |
|
CONTROL ZONE and CONTROL AREA CHART - ENTRY/EXIT LANES and VRPS |
| AD 2.EGPH-4-1 |
|
ATC SURVEILLANCE MINIMUM ALTITUDE CHART - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-5-1 |
|
STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) GOSAM (Jet aircraft only) - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-6-1 |
|
STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) TALLA - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-6-2 |
|
STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) GRICE - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-6-3 |
|
RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) PTH 1G - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-7-1 |
|
RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) INPIP 1E - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-7-2 |
|
RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) AGPED 1E - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-7-3 |
|
RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) GIRVA 1E - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-7-4 |
|
RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) TUNSO 1E - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-7-5 |
|
STANDARD INSTRUMENT ARRIVAL CODING TABLES PTH 1G INPIP 1E AGPED 1E GIRVA 1E TUNSO 1E |
| AD 2.EGPH-7-6 |
|
RNAV HOLD CODING TABLE STIRA TARTN |
| AD 2.EGPH-7-7 |
|
INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART ILS/DME/NDB(L) RWY 06 - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-8-1 |
|
INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART LOC/DME/NDB(L) RWY 06 - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-8-2 |
|
INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART NDB/DME RWY 06 - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-8-3 |
|
INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART ILS/DME/NDB(L) RWY 24 - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-8-4 |
|
INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART LOC/DME/NDB(L) RWY 24 - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-8-5 |
|
INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART NDB(L)/DME RWY 24 - ICAO |
| AD 2.EGPH-8-6 |
Not applicable